PostOp test
Here is the link to read the article or get the rationale.
http://www.nursingceu.com/courses/105/index_nceu.html
I have deleted a bunch of the Qs because it's way more than you need to know right now. If you want to see the whole test, use the link.


3.
Planning for the post anesthesia period begins:
a. During the preoperative period.
b. During the intraoperative period.
c. Immediately postoperatively.
d. When HMO cost savers learn of the planned procedure.

4.
Early admission cases are:
a. First come, first serve surgeries.
b. Individuals who line up before the doors officially open to the medical complex.
c. Clients who will undergo a planned outpatient procedure.
d. Clients who, due to the seriousness of their procedure, will require admission for a prolonged stay.

6.
Standards for PACU care require that a post anesthesia care unit or an equivalent area be provided to whom?
a. Clients in good standing with local healthcare allocation agencies.
b. Pre-admit clients only.
c. Clients warranting further treatment and follow-up.
d. All who receive anesthesia care.

7.
Accepted standards for PACU care mandate that a client's condition while in the PACU be evaluated how frequently?
a. On admission, at five minutes, 15 minutes, and every 30 minutes thereafter
b. Continually
c. As individual condition warrants
d. Every 15 minutes

8.
Who is responsible for the discharge of the client from the post anesthesia care unit?
a. The charge nurse
b. The client
c. A physician
d. The HMO doorkeeper

12.
Which function is not one of the three essential functions listed for decreasing the postoperative complication rate?
a. Management of client airway
b. Review of planned cost coverage measures
c. Measurement and recording of vital signs
d. Report from anesthesiologist to the PACU nurse assuming care

15.
Clients in the PACU are under the primary care of:
a. The primary physician
b. The surgeon
c. The anesthesiologist
d. The nursing staff

16.
The overall incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) varies between:
a. 1% and 5% of postoperative clients
b. 5% and 10% of postoperative clients
c. 10% and 20% of postoperative clients
d. 20% and 30% of postoperative clients

17.
What is nausea?
a. The uncomfortable sensation of an impending episode of vomiting
b. The prodromal symptom of gastric eversion
c. An unfortunate result of lacto-lipid-carbohydrate overdose
d. Inevitable as a postoperative complication

19.
Those clients with a history of PONV are best treated:
a. By deferring the procedure in favor of other therapies.
b. By withholding anesthesia during the operation.
c. By both prophylactic and intra-operative treatment.
d. By utilizing the frequent gastric emptying techniques.

22.
Aspiration correlates closely with the presence of which of the following complications?
a. Pulmonary shunting
b. Hypoxemia and hyperventilation
c. Reactive airway disease
d. Vomiting and high gastric content volumes

23.
What is hypoxemia?
a. An excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
b. The condition of having a below-normal oxygen content
c. Always a call for induced ventilation
d. An oxygen saturation less then 94% by pulse oximetry

25.
What is pulmonary embolism?
a. A sequela (problem) of obesity
b. The sudden lodgment of material in a pulmonary artery with obstruction of the blood supply
c. The inhalation of any foreign material into the lungs
d. A result of allergic reactions to drugs, blood or blood products

26.
Hoarseness and sore throat occur in roughly how many intubated clients?
a. One-tenth
b. One-fifth
c. One -quarter
d. One-third

27.
In order to assess for respiratory insufficiency, it is important to:
a. Listen for breathe sounds.
b. Check respiration rates.
c. Observe depth and ease of breathing.
d. All of the above.

28.
Which of the following is not one of the four key events used to identify cardiovascular problems in the PACU?
a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypertension
c. Hypotension
d. Bradycardia

30.
What is hypotension?
a. A normal part of the healing process.
b. Common among northern Europeans.
c. A vasoconstrictive event related to stimulation of the vascular bed.
d. An abnormally low systolic blood pressure as compared to baseline.

31.
New-onset hypotension in the PACU is almost always a sign of:
a. An unwanted medication interaction.
b. Hypovolemia.
c. Blood loss.
d. All of the above.

32.
Vasopressors are agents that:
a. Augment coronary and cerebral blood flow associated with shock.
b. Stimulate renal vascularity.
c. Stimulate the beta 2 and alpha 7 receptors to promote vasoconstriction.
d. Reduce water reabsorption in the distal renal tubular epithelium.

33.
Common cause for tachycardias seen in the PACU includes all of the following except:
a. Pain
b. Hypovolemia
c. Hypoxia
d. Hypothermia

34.
In the immediate postoperative period, hypoxia may provoke which cardiovascular response?
a. Initial bradycardia
b. Wandering atrial pacemaker syndrome
c. Tachycardia
d. Sinus arrhythmia

35.
Bradycardia is a heart rate:
a. Greater then 100 bpm.
b. Less then 60 bpm.
c. Less then 30 bpm.
d. Greater then 60 bpm.

37.
Which of the following is not a complication of fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
a. Hyperthermia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypermagnesemia

38.
Treatment for hypermagnesemia includes all of the following except:
a. Discontinuation of exogenous sources
b. Support of cardiorespiratory function
c. Intravenous calcium administration
d. Diuresis with furosemide

40.
What is one serious misconception concerning the use of narcotics in the immediate post anesthesia environment?
a. They increase respiratory depth and effort.
b. They interfere with the Cox 2 cycle.
c. Dosage must be kept small and infrequent to avoid addiction.
d. It is an effective means to resolve hypotension.

42.
What is the best time to plan analgesia for the PACU?
a. Prior to anesthesia
b. During induction
c. Intraoperatively
d. In the PACU

43.
What is the purpose of a PCA device?
a. To give the anesthesiologist greater control over medication delivery
b. To allow staffing to be decreased postoperatively
c. To include the facility pain-management team in postoperative care
d. To allow the client to self-administer analgesics in a safe manner

44.
Excessively low body temperature is known as:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypothermia
d. Hyperthermia

45.
What is malignant hyperthermia?
a. A malaria based disorder
b. An autosomal-dominant inherited disorder
c. A toxemia of unknown origin
d. A frequent sequela(problem) of surgery

47.
What role do operating room procedures play in PACU temperature complications?
a. Clients are frequently recovered within the surgical suite to facilitate speedy discharge.
b. Laminar-flow ventilation promotes thermoregulation.
c. Prevention is the most important aspect of treatment.
d. No role. This is a trick question.

50.
What is the cause of diabetes insipidus?
a. Excessive plasma glucose levels
b. Underproduction of antidiuretic hormone
c. Increased plasma osmolarity
d. Hypernatremia

52.
Thyroid storm is characterized by:
a. The abrupt onset of symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
b. Bradycardia.
c. Hypoxemia.
d. Blood glucose levels in excess of 700 mg/dL.